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Question 2 Of 5 A 40-year-old woman sees you in the office for follow-up of treatment for recurrent depression. Her symptoms have improved slightly after 2 months of fluoxetine (Prozac) 10 mg a day and weekly counseling sessions with a psychologist. She states that she is still having feelings of “low energy” and “crying episodes.” She is having no medication side effects, and both she and her husband state that she is taking her medication regularly. Which of the following would be the most appropriate next step? A Continue with your current plan and give it more time. OB Increase the fluoxetine dose to 20 mg daily and continue counseling. OC Discontinue fluoxetine and start paroxetine 10 mg daily. OD Continue fluoxetine and add bupropion as adjunctive therapy. OE Discontinue medications and arrange for psychiatric consultation for ECT. Submit & View Answer Submit & View Next Question Next: References

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