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Question 1 Which of the following often gets Giardiasis Lamblia? a. Children b. Sanitation workers c. Mountain hikers d. Athletes 1.64 points Question 2 Which of the following best describes when a safety hood is mandatory in the laboratory? a. Performing a culture with aerosol potential b. Examine a stool sample c. Working with a smelly sample d. Performing an anaerobic culture 1.64 points Question 3 How is the Epstein-Barr virus that causes infectious mononucleosis primarily transmitted? a. Aspiration b. Vector c. Injection d. Saliva 1.64 points Question 4 When is the semen analysis NOT performed? a. Complete PE b. Determine paternity c. Substantiate rape cases d. Evaluate vasectomy effectiveness 1.6 points Question 5 Which of the following statements is true when taking the hCG pregnancy test? a. Use two drops of reagent. b. Use a reagent. c. Apply urine after putting the reagent in the test unit. d. Use a stopwatch to measure the time of the test. 1.64 points Question 6 What is the danger of a high level of low-density lipoproteins? a. Too much is excreted in the bile. b. It cannot be reversed. c. It cannot be used for the risk of coronary artery disease. d. It increases the risk of coronary artery disease. 1.64 points Question 7 After the agar plate has been inoculated and properly labeled, what should you do with the plaque? a. Leave it on its back and place it in the right environment for its growth. b. Put it back with the other agar plates in the original package. c. Nothing, agar plates do not require anything special. d. Turn it upside down and place it in the right environment for growth. 1.64 points Question 8 Which of the following statements is true regarding tuberculosis? a. It has a high lipid content in the cell wall b. It is declining in the United States c. Caused by Mycobacterium avium d. It is a very mobile bacterium 1.64 points Question 9 How can a yeast infection be diagnosed? a. Use a Wood flashlight. b. Use a Woody lamp c. Use a Wood lamp. d. Use a wooden lamp. 1.64 points Question 10 Which test measures the concentration of urea in the blood? a. PKU b. EIA c. GOOD d. TB 1.64 points Question 11 Which of the following is NOT included in the inoculation techniques? a. Turf streak b. Colony count c. Random streak d. Circle 1.64 points Question 12 Trichomonas vaginalis is a parasite found how many times more often in women than in men? a. 5 b. 4 c. 2 d. 6 1.64 points Question 13 When koh is used in a wet assembly, what does the KOH do? a. Stains the body b. Makes objects look brighter c. Remove debris d. Destroy the fungus 1.64 points Question 14 Which of the following is the nuclear material of all cells? a. ADN b. ARN c. Ribosomes d. Cytoplasm 1.64 points Question 15 Which of the following best describes hospital-acquired infections? a. Nosocomial b. Bacterial c. Floral d. Serratia 1.64 points Question 16 Normal total bilirubin levels range from: a. 0.1-1.2 mg/dL b. 1-6 mg/dL c. 0,5-1,5 mg/dL d. 0.1-0.2 mg/dL 1.64 points Question 17 A small sample of which of the following samples is required for a CLIA-exempt IM test? a. Capillary blood b. All of the above c. Plasma d. Serum 1.64 points Question 18 The medium that contains substances that alter the appearance of some organisms and not others is called: a. Selective media b. Rich Media c. Differential media d. Basic media 1.64 points Question 19 A wet frame is used to: a. Bacterial stains b. Both b and c c. Suspend the body in a liquid to study d. Examine organisms under a microscope. 1.64 points Question 20 The pregnancy hormone can be detected in a pregnant woman’s urine as soon as: a. 11 days after conception b. 14 days after conception c. 8 days after conception d. 2 days after conception 1.64 points Question 21 When a parasite test comes back negative for worms, how many confirmatory tests should be performed? a. Several b. 5 c. 8 d. 7 1.64 points Question 22 Which of the following may or may not affect sperm function as measured by sperm analysis? a. Testicular atrophy b. Alcohol c. Cytoxan d. Orquitis 1.64 points Question 23 Which of the following is the KOH used for the test? a. Stool samples b. Fungi and spores c. Acid-resistant bacteria d. Gram-positive bacteria 1.64 points Question 24 Which of the following is NOT considered to be part of standard personal protective equipment? a. Law (Gown) b. Shoe cover c. Faces shield d. Gloves e. Masks 1.64 points Question 25 Which of the following viral diseases does NOT have a vaccine available? a. Human papilloma b. Rubella c. Varicella zoster d. Herpes simplex 1.64 points Question 26 Which of the following best describes the primary purpose of OSHA regulations? a. Require HBV vaccination b. Ensuring safety in the workplace c. Regulation of BSI in the doctor’s office d. Ensuring universal precautions e. Implement CLIA regulations 1.64 points Question 27 Which of the following diseases does NOT have a vaccine available? a. Measles b. Chickenpox c. HCV d. HBV 1.64 points Question 28 Who is at the highest risk of developing a nosocomial infection? a. Children b. Inpatients c. Women d. People in social spheres 1.64 points Question 29 Which of the following is considered an antibiotic-resistant bacterium? a. MRSA b. Pneumococcal c. Meningitis d. MMR 1.64 points Question 30 Which of the following are examples of a reservoir in the infection cycle? a. Equipment and water b. respiratory tract and injured skin c. Protozoa and fungi d. Immunosuppressants and the elderly e. Excretions and secretions 1.64 points Question 31 Which of the following links in the infection cycle is the sixth link? a. Susceptible guest b. Exit portal c. Entry portal d. Transmission mode 1.64 points Question 32 Which of the following diseases does not need to be reported to the CDC’s Notifiable Disease Surveillance System? a. Varicela (Chickenpox) b. Lyme disease c. Salmonella d. Meningitis 1.64 points Question 33 All of the following are desired features of safety devices EXCEPT: a. That cannot be deactivated b. Easy to use c. Jet injection d. That does not work passively 1.64 points Question 34 Which of the following best describes the order of occurrence of the infection cycle?1. Susceptible host2. Gateway of exit3. Infectious agent4. Reservoir host5. Means of transmission6. Gateway of entry a. 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 1 b. 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6 c. 3, 4, 2, 5, 6, 1 d. 4, 3, 2, 6, 5, 1 1.64 points Question 35 What are the steps in physiological order from beginning to end of the inflammatory process? 1. Pathogens are destroyed.2. White blood cells move in the injured tissue.3. There is pain due to nerve damage.4. Plasma moves into the tissues, causing inflammation.5. Blood flow causes redness or warmth.6. Dilation of blood vessels increases blood supply. a. 5, 6, 4, 3, 1, 2 b. 6, 5, 4, 3, 2, 1 c. 5, 6, 3, 4, 2, 1 d. 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6 1.64 points Question 36 Practices such as hand washing, general cleaning, and disinfectant are part of which of: a. Infection control b. Surgical asepsis c. OSHA Compliance d. Medical asepsis 1.64 points Question 37 What medical asepsis process uses chemicals capable of destroying many pathogenic microorganisms? a. Ultrasound b. Sanitation (Sanitization) c. Desinfección (Disinfection) d. Esterilización (Sterilization) 1.64 points Question 38 When hand washing with antimicrobial soap and water is not available, the ____________ method can also be used a. Lotion b. Alcohol-based hand sanitizer c. Antimicrobial wipes d. No need to do anything 1.64 points Question 39 According to CLIA regulations, ___________ is not considered a category with respect to the level of complexity a. Low complexity b. Cede c. High complexity d. Moderate complexity 1.64 points Question 40 Which of the following agencies requires employers to ensure the safety of employees in relation to occupational exposure to potentially harmful substances? a. U.S. Department of Labor b. Centers for Medicare and Medicaid Services c. Center for Disease Control d. OSHA 1.64 points Question 41 What category of evidence is simple, invariable, and requires a minimum of judgment and interpretation? a. Desechables (Waived) b. High complexity c. Moderate complexity d. Low complexity 1.64 points Question 42 Which of the following organizations is responsible for CLIA’s test and study categorization? a. CMS b. OSHA c. Medicaid d. U.S. Department of Labor 1.64 points Question 43 Which of the following would be the only healthcare professionals trained specifically for the outpatient setting, including the POL procedure? a. Medical Assistant b. Dentists c. Medical d. Registered Nurses 1.64 points Question 44 Which of the following is NOT an approved provider for performing microscopy procedures? a. Doctor b. Mid-level practitioner c. Medical Assistant d. Dentist 1.64 points Question 45 Which of the following has to comply by a mandate of law with quality control and assurance? a. All exams b. Disposable tests (waived test) c. All non-waived tests 1.64 points Question 46 Which of the following is NOT a goal that must be achieved to meet OSHA standards for the chemical hygiene plan? a. Provide education within 90 days of employment b. Inventory of all hazardous chemicals c. Assembling a Material Safety Data Sheet (MSDS) d. Provide education before an employee handles any hazardous chemicals 1.64 points Question 47 What is the purpose of CLIA? a. Ensures that all computers are stored securely b. Insuring the public by regulating all tests c. Promotes a healthy and safe work environment d. It guarantees you have insurance that covers possible errors 1.64 points Question 48 Which of the following is NOT a content of the law with respect to CLIA regulations? a. Quality assurance measures are used. b. All laboratories must be registered. c. Branded products are used in testing. d. Regulations apply to all laboratories. 1.64 points Question 49 Which of the following is the main purpose of a material safety data sheet? a. Provide information for patient safety b. Identify hazardous ingredients, first aid procedures and procedures in case of spills or leaks c. Provide information on expiration dates d. Complete all OSHA regulations 1.64 points Question 50 Within how many days of employment will the provider be required to provide an educational risk communication program? a. 30 b. 20 c. 10 d. 5 1.64 points Question 51 Which of the following is one of the means of exposure to hazardous chemicals for the physician assistant? a. Skin contact b. By inhalation c. Injection d. All are means of exposure for the medical assistant 1.64 points Question 52 Who is credited with the first vaccine to protect against smallpox? a. Jenner b. Pastor c. Cook d. Curie 1.64 points Question 53 Both healthcare professionals and patients may be allergic to latex. A severe anaphylactic reaction may occur, consisting of the following symptoms: a. Shortness of breath b. Edema of the larynx c. Hypotension d. Vascular collapse e. All of the above 1.64 points Question 54 How many primary goals must an employer achieve to meet OSHA’s standard for chemical exposure? a. 3 b. 2 c. 6 d. 4 1.64 points Question 55 Tests of moderate complexity require: a. A higher degree of training b. Personnel licenses c. Stricter regulations d. All of the above 1.64 points Question 56 Which of the following is more important for students to remember in the clinical classroom? a. No hazardous chemicals are used. b. Follow all safety procedures described by OSHA. c. MSDS is not required. d. No extraction hoods are required in the presence of toxic gases. 1.64 points Question 57 Which of the following are modes of transmission within the infection cycle? a. Direct and indirect contact b. Transmitted by blood c. Airborne d. All of the above are correct 1.64 points Question 58 Is the science that studies the history, cause, and patterns of infectious diseases known as what? a. Histology b. Illness c. Epidemiology d. Infectology 1.64 points Question 59 When referencing the National Fire Protection Association’s color and number method, what number has the least potential for danger? a. 3 b. 2 c. 0 d. 1 1.64 points Question 60 Which of the following options is NOT performed in the quality control protocol for automated hematological instruments? a. Control samples b. Calibration c. Proficiency tests d. PPMP 1.64 points Question 61 The federal agency that defines and classifies chemical hazards and communicates worldwide for health and safety is known as the a. GHS b. CDC c. CMS d. OSHA

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