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ANSWER THE FOLLOWING QUESTION 12. During the organogenesis process, the ectoderm is responsible for the formation of the epidermis while the endoderm is responsible for the development of the different organs of the body. (1 Point) A. The statement above is true B. the statement above is false C. Partially true D. No answer 13.During this period, alveoli development and production of surfactants are expected. (1 Point) A. 16 weeks B. 20 weeks C. 24 weeks D. 28 weeks 14.Smoking is contraindicated in pregnancy because: (1 Point) A. Nicotine causes vasodilation of the mother’s blood vessels. B. Carbon monoxide binds with the hemoglobin of the mother reducing available hemoglobin for the fetus. C. The smoke will make the fetus, and the mother feels dizzy. D. Nicotine will cause vasoconstriction of the fetal blood vessels. 15.You performed Leopold’s maneuver and found the following: cephalic presentation, fetal back at the right side of the mother. Based on these findings, you can hear the fetal heartbeat (PMI) BEST in which location? (1 Point) A. Left lower quadrant B. Right lower quadrant C. Left upper quadrant D. Right upper quadrant 16.In Leopold’s maneuver step #1, you palpated a soft, broad mass that moves with the rest of the mass. The correct interpretation of this finding is: (1 Point) A. The mass palpated at the fundal part is the head part. B. The presentation is breech. C. The mass palpated is the back. D. The mass palpated is the buttocks. 17.In Leopold’s maneuver step #3 you palpated a hard round movable mass at the suprapubic area. The correct interpretation is that the mass palpated is: (1 Point) A. The buttocks because the presentation is breech. B. The mass palpated is the head. C. The mass is the fetal back. D. The mass palpated is the small fetal part. 18.The nurse instructs a laboring client to use accelerated blow breathing. The client begins to complain of tingling fingers and dizziness. Which action should the nurse take? (1 Point) A. Administer oxygen by face mask. B. Notify the health care provider of the client’s symptoms. C. Have the client breathe into her cupped hands. D. Check the client’s blood pressure and fetal heart rate. 19.Which of the following urinary symptoms does the pregnant woman most frequently experience during the first trimester? (1 Point) A. Dysuria B. Frequency C. Incontinence D. Burning 20.Which of the following findings in a woman would be consistent with a pregnancy of two months duration? (1 Point) A. Weight gain of 6-10 lbs. And the presence of striae gravidarum. B. Fullness of the breast and urinary frequency. C. Braxton Hicks contractions and quickening. D. Increased respiratory rate and ballottement. 21.Heartburn and flatulence, common in the second trimester, are most likely the result of which of the following? (1 Point) A. Increased plasma HCG levels. B. Decreased intestinal motility. C. Decreased gastric acidity. D. Elevated estrogen levels. 22.In which of the following areas would the nurse expect to observe chloasma? (1 Point) A. Breast, areola, and nipples B. Chest, neck, arms, and legs C. Abdomen, breast, and thighs D. Cheeks, forehead, and nose 23.A pregnant client states that she “waddles” when she walks. The nurse’s explanation is based on which of the following is the cause? (1 Point) A. The large size of the newborn. B. Pressure on the pelvic muscles. C. Relaxation of the pelvic joints. D. Excessive weight gain. 24.The nurse is developing a teaching plan for a patient who is 8 weeks pregnant. The nurse should tell the patient that she can expect to feel the fetus move at which time? (1 Point) A. Between 10 and 12 weeks gestation. B. Between 16 and 20 weeks gestation C. Between 21 and 23 weeks gestation. D. Between 24 and 26 weeks gestation 25.The nurse is caring for a primigravida at about 2 months and 1-week gestation. After explaining self-care measures for common discomforts of pregnancy, the nurse determines that the client understands the instructions when she says: (1 Point) A. “Nausea and vomiting can be decreased if I eat a few crackers before arising.” B. “If I start to leak colostrum, I should cleanse my nipples with soap and water.” C. “If I have a vaginal discharge, I should wear nylon underwear.” D. “Leg cramps can be alleviated if I put an ice pack on the area.” 26.A primigravida client at 25 weeks gestation visits the clinic and tells the nurse that her lower back aches when she arrives home from work. The nurse should suggest that the client perform: (1 Point) A. Tailor sitting B. Leg lifting C. Shoulder circling D. Squatting exercises 27.3. A 31-year-old multipara is admitted to the birthing room after initial examination reveals her cervix to be at 8 cm, completely effaced (100 %), and at 0 station. What phase of labor is she in? (1 Point) A. Active phase B. Latent phase C. Expulsive phase D. Transitional phase 28.A primigravida patient is admitted to the labor delivery area. Assessment reveals that she is in the early part of the first stage of labor. Her pain is likely to be most intense: (1 Point) A. Around the pelvic girdle B. Around the pelvic girdle and in the upper arms C. Around the pelvic girdle and at the perineum D. At the perineum 29.The nurse in charge is caring for a patient who is in the first stage of labor. What is the shortest but most difficult part of this stage? (1 Point) A. Active phase B. Complete phase C. Latent phase D. Transitional phase 30. Which of the following represents the average amount of weight gained during pregnancy? (1 Point) A. 12 to 22 lbs. B. 15 to 25 lbs. C. 24 to 30 lbs. D. 25 to 40 lbs. 31.The hormone responsible for a positive pregnancy test is: (1 Point) A. Estrogen B. Progesterone C. Human Chorionic Gonadotropin D. Follicle Stimulating Hormone 32.Cervical softening and uterine souffle are classified as which of the following? (1 Point) A. Diagnostic signs B. Presumptive signs C. Probable signs D. Positive signs 33.Which of the following would the nurse identify as a presumptive sign of pregnancy? (1 Point) A. Hegar’s sign B. Nausea and vomiting C. Skin pigmentation changes D. Positive serum pregnancy test 34.Which of the following common emotional reactions to pregnancy would the nurse expect to occur during the first trimester? (1 Point) A. Introversion, egocentrism, narcissism. B. Awkwardness, clumsiness, and unattractiveness. C. Anxiety, passivity, extroversion. D. Ambivalence, fear, fantasies. 35.During which of the following would the focus of classes be mainly on physiologic changes, fetal development, sexuality, during pregnancy, and nutrition? (1 Point) A. Prepregnant period B. First trimester C. Second trimester D. Third trimester 36.FHR can be auscultated with a fetoscope as early as which of the following? (1 Point) A. 5 weeks gestation B. 10 weeks gestation C. 15 weeks gestation D. 20 weeks gestation 37.Accompanied by her husband, a patient seeks admission to the labor and delivery area. The client states that she is in labor and says she attended the hospital clinic for prenatal care. Which question should the nurse ask her first? (1 Point) A. “Do you have any chronic illness?” B. “Do you have any allergies?” C. “What is your expected due date?” D. “Who will be with you during labor?” 38.A client LMP began July 5, 2020. Her estimated date of delivery (EDD) should be one of the following? (1 Point) A. January 2, 2021 B. March 28, 2021 C. April 12, 2021 D. October 12, 2020 39.The client tells the nurse that her last menstrual period started on January 14 and ended on January 20. Using Naegele’s rule, the nurse determines her EDD to be which of the following? (1 Point) A. September 27 B. October 21 C. November 7 D. December 27 40.When taking an obstetrical history on a pregnant client who states, “I had a son born at 38 weeks gestation a daughter born at 30 weeks gestation and I lost my other baby at about 8 weeks”, the nurse should record her obstetrical history as which of the following? (1 Point) A. G2 T2 P0 A0 L2 B. G3 T1 P1 A0 L2 C. G3 T2 P0 A0 L2 D. G4 T1 P1 A1 L2 41.Mrs. Santos is on her 5th pregnancy and has a history of abortion in the 4th pregnancy, and the first pregnancy was a twin. She is considered to be: (1 Point) A. G 4 P 3 B. G 5 P 3 C. G 5 P 4 D. G 4 P 4 42.Which of the following fundal heights indicates less than 12 weeks gestation when the date of the LMP is unknown? (1 Point) A. Uterus in the pelvis B. Uterus at the xiphoid C. Uterus in the abdomen D. Uterus at the umbilicus 43.In Bartholomew’s Rule of 4, when the level of the fundus is midway between the umbilicus and xiphoid process the estimated age of gestation (AOG) is: (1 Point) A. 5th month B. 6th month C. 7th month D. 8th month 44.The following are ways of determining the expected date of delivery (EDD) when the LMP is unknown EXCEPT: (1 Point) A. Naegele’s rule B. Rule of nine C. McDonald’s rule D. Batholomew’s rule of 4 45.During a prenatal class, the nurse explains the rationale for breathing techniques during preparation for labor based on the understanding that breathing techniques are most important in achieving which of the following? (1 Point) A. Eliminate pain and give expectant parents something to do. B. Reduce the risk of fetal distress by increasing uteroplacental perfusion. C. Facilitate relaxation, possibly reducing the perception of pain. D. Eliminate pain so that less analgesia and anesthesia are needed. 46.A patient is in the second stage of labor. During this stage, how frequently should the nurse in charge assess her uterine contractions? (1 Point) A. Every 5 minutes. B. Every 15 minutes. C. Every 30 minutes. D. Every 60 minutes. 47.When preparing to listen to the fetal heart rate at 12 weeks gestation, the nurse would use which of the following? (1 Point) A. Stethoscope placed midline at the umbilicus. B. Doppler placed midline at the suprapubic region. C. Fetoscope placed midway between the umbilicus and the xiphoid process. D. External electronic fetal monitor placed at the umbilicus. 48.When measuring a client’s fundal height, which of the following techniques denotes the correct method of measurement used by the nurse? (1 Point) A. From the xiphoid process to the umbilicus. B. From the symphysis pubis to the xiphoid process. C. From the symphysis pubis to the fundus. D. From the fundus to the umbilicus. 49.The nurse documents positive ballottement in the client’s prenatal record. The nurse understands that this indicates which of the following? (1 Point) A. Palpable contractions on the abdomen. B. Passive movement of the unengaged fetus. C. Fetal kicking felt by the client. D. Enlargement and softening of the uterus. 50.During a pelvic exam, the nurse notes a purple-blue tinge of the cervix. The nurse documents this as which of the following? (1 Point) A. Braxton-Hicks sign B. Chadwick’s sign C. Goodell’s sign D. McDonald’s sign 51.Which of the following is a positive sign of pregnancy? (1 Point) A. Fetal movement felt by mother B. Enlargement of the uterus C. (+) pregnancy test D. (+) ultrasound 52.What event occurring in the second trimester helps the expectant mother to accept the pregnancy? (1 Point) A. Lightening B. Ballottement C. Pseudocyesis D. Quickening 53.This event occurs during the third trimester and usually indicates childbirth and fetal parts are settled in the birth canal? (1 Point) A. Lightening B. Ballottement C. Pseudocyesis D. Quickening 54.After completing a second vaginal examination of a client in labor, the nurse-midwife determines that the fetus is in the right occiput anterior position and at (-1) station. Based on these findings, the nurse-midwife knows that the fetal presenting part is: (1 Point) A. 1 cm below the ischial spines. B. Directly in line with the ischial spines. C. 1 cm above the ischial spines. D. In no relationship with the ischial spine 55.A client, 30 weeks pregnant, is scheduled for a biophysical profile (BPP) to evaluate the health of her fetus. Her BPP score is 8. What does this score indicate? In no relationship to the ischial spines. (1 Point) A. The fetus should be delivered within 24 hours. B. The client should repeat the test in 24 hours. C. The fetus isn’t in distress at this time. D. The client should repeat the test in 1 week. 56.A client who is 36 weeks pregnant comes to the clinic for a prenatal checkup. To assess the client’s preparation for parenting, the nurse might ask which question? (1 Point) A. “Are you planning to have epidural anesthesia?” B. “Have you begun prenatal classes?” C. “What changes have you made at home to get ready for the baby?” D. Can you tell me about the meals you typically eat each day?” 57.A client in her third trimester tells the nurse, “I’m constipated all the time!” Which of the following should the nurse recommend? (1 Point) A. Daily enemas B. Laxatives C. Increased fiber intake D. Decreased fluid intake 58.A client who’s admitted to labor and delivery has the following assessment findings: gravida 2 para 1, estimated 40 weeks gestation, contractions 2 minutes apart, lasting 45 seconds, vertex +4 station. Which of the following would be the priority at this time? (1 Point) A. Placing the client in bed to begin fetal monitoring. B. Preparing for immediate delivery. C. Checking for ruptured membranes. D. Providing comfort measures. 59.After teaching a pregnant woman who is in labor about the purpose of the episiotomy, which of the following purposes stated by the client would indicate to the nurse that the teaching was effective? (1 Point) A. Shortens the second stage of labor. B. Enlarges the pelvic inlet. C. Prevents perineal edema. D. Ensures quick placenta delivery. 60.Which of the following characteristics of contractions would the nurse expect to find in a client experiencing true labor? (1 Point) A. Occurring at irregular intervals. B. Starting mainly in the abdomen. C. Gradually increasing intervals. D. Increasing intensity with walking. 61.During which of the following stages of labor would the nurse assess “crowning”? (1 Point) A. First stage B. Second stage C. Third stage D. Fourth stage 62.The fetal heartbeat should be monitored every 15 minutes during the 2nd stage of labor. The characteristic of a normal fetal heart rate is: (1 Point) A. The heart rate will decelerate during a contraction and then go back to its pre-contraction rate after the contraction. B. The heart rate will accelerate during a contraction and remain slightly above the pre-contraction rate at the end of the contraction. C. The rate should not be affected by uterine contraction. D. The heart rate will decelerate in the middle of a contraction and remain so for about a minute after the contraction. 63.The multigravida mother with a history of rapid labor who us in active labor calls out to the nurse, “The baby is coming!” which of the following would be the nurse’s first action? (1 Point) A. Inspect the perineum. B. Time the contractions. C. Auscultate the fetal heart rate. D. Contact the birth attendant. 64.Immediately before the expulsion, which of the following cardinal movements occur? (1 Point) A. Descent B. Flexion C. Extension D. External rotation 65.Which of the following nursing interventions would the nurse perform during the third stage of labor? (1 Point) A. Obtain a urine specimen and other laboratory tests. B. Assess uterine contractions every 30 minutes. C. Coach for effective client pushing. D. Promote parent-newborn interaction. 66.The nurse understands that the fetal head is in which of the following positions with a face presentation? (1 Point) A. Completely flexed B. Completely extended C. Partially extended D. Partially flexed 67.With a fetus in the left anterior breech presentation, the nurse would expect the fetal heart rate would be most audible in which of the following areas? (1 Point) A. Above the maternal umbilicus and to the right of the midline. B. In the lower-left maternal abdominal quadrant. C. In the lower-right maternal abdominal quadrant. D. Above the maternal umbilicus and to the left of the midline. 68.The most common normal position of the fetus in the uterus is: (1 Point) A. Transverse position B. Vertical position C. Oblique position D. None of the above 69.In the later part of the 3rd trimester, the mother may experience shortness of breath. This complaint may be explained as: (1 Point) A. A normal occurrence in pregnancy is because the fetus is using more oxygen. B. The fundus of the uterus is high pushing the diaphragm upwards. C. The woman is having an allergic reaction to the pregnancy and its hormones. D. The woman may be experiencing complications of pregnancy. 70.Shoes with low, broad heels, plus a good posture will prevent which prenatal discomfort? (1 Point) A. Backache B. Vertigo C. Leg cramps D. Nausea 71.When a pregnant woman experiences leg cramps, the correct nursing intervention to relieve the muscle cramps is: (1 Point) A. Allow the woman to exercise. B. Let the woman walk for a while. C. Let the woman lie down and dorsiflex the foot towards the knees. D. Ask the woman to raise her legs. 72.From the 33rd week of gestation till full term, a healthy mother should have a prenatal check-up every: (1 Point) A. Week B. 2 weeks C. 3 weeks D. 4 weeks 73.The expected weight gain in a normal pregnancy during the 3rd trimester is: (1 Point) A. 1 pound a week B. 2 pounds a week C. 10 lbs a month D. 10 lbs total weight gain in the 3rd trimester 74.Kegel’s exercise is done in pregnancy in order to: (1 Point) A. Strengthen perineal muscles. B. Relieve backache. C. Strengthen abdominal muscles. D. Prevent leg varicosities and edema. 75.Pelvic rocking is an appropriate exercise in pregnancy to relieve which discomfort? (1 Point) A. Leg cramps B. Urinary frequency C. Orthostatic hypotension D. Backache 76.The main reason for an expected increased need for iron in pregnancy is: (1 Point) A. The mother may have physiologic anemia due to the increased need for red blood cell mass as well as the fetal requires about 350-400 mg of iron to grow. B. The mother may suffer anemia because of poor appetite. C. The fetus has an increased need for RBC which the mother must supply. D. The mother may have a problem with digestion because of pica. 77.The diet that is appropriate for normal pregnancy should be high in: (1 Point) A. Protein, minerals, and vitamins B. Carbohydrates and vitamins C. Proteins, carbohydrates, and fats D. Fats and minerals 78.You want to perform a pelvic examination on one of your pregnant clients. You prepare your client for the procedure by: (1 Point) A. Asking her to void. B. Taking her vital signs and recording the readings. C. Giving the client perineal care. D. Doing a vaginal prep 79.You are performing an abdominal exam on a 9th-month pregnant woman. While lying supine, she felt breathless and had pallor, tachycardia, and cold clammy skin. The correct assessment of the woman’s condition is that she is: (1 Point) A. Experiencing the beginning of labor. B. Having supine hypotension. C. Having a sudden elevation of BP. D. Going into shock. 80.The nursing measure to relieve fetal distress due to maternal supine hypotension is: (1 Point) A. Place the mother in semi-Fowler’s position. B. Put the mother in the left side-lying position. C. Place mother in a knee-chest position. D. Any of the above. 81.The nursing intervention to relieve “morning sickness” in a pregnant woman is by giving: (1 Point) A. Dry carbohydrate food like crackers B. Low sodium diet C. Intravenous infusion D. Antacid 82.The primary power involved in labor and delivery is: (1 Point) A. Bearing down the ability of a mother. B. Cervical effacement and dilatation. C. Uterine contraction. D. Valsalva technique. 83.The proper technique to monitor the intensity of a uterine contraction is: (1 Point) A. Place the palm of the hands on the abdomen and time the contraction. B. Place the fingertips lightly on the suprapubic area and time the contraction. C. Put the tip of the fingers lightly on the fundal area and try to indent the abdominal wall at the height of the contraction. D. Put the palm of the hands on the fundal area and feel the contraction at the fundal area. 84.To monitor the frequency of the uterine contraction during labor, the right technique is to time the contraction as: (1 Point) A. From the beginning of one contraction to the end of the same contraction. B. From the beginning of one contraction to the beginning of the next contraction. C. From the end of one contraction to the beginning of the next contraction. D. From the deceleration of one contraction to the acme of the next contraction. 85.The second stage of labor begins with ___ and ends with __? (1 Point) A. Begins with full dilatation of the cervix and ends with the delivery of the placenta. B. Begins with true labor pains and ends with the delivery of the baby. C. Begins with complete dilatation and effacement of the cervix and ends with the delivery of the baby. D. Begins with the passage of show and ends with full dilatation and effacement of the cervix. 86.When the bag of water ruptures, the nurse should check the characteristic of the amniotic fluid. The normal color of amniotic fluid is: (1 Point) A. Clear as water B. Bluish C. Greenish D. Yellowish 87.The first thing that a nurse must ensure when the baby’s head comes out is: (1 Point) A. The cord is intact B. No part of the cord is encircling the baby’s neck C. The cord is still attached to the placenta D. The cord is still pulsating 88.When doing perineal care in preparation for delivery, the nurse should observe the following, except? (1 Point) A. Use up-down technique with one stroke. B. Clean from the mons veneris to the anus. C. Use mild soap and warm water. D. Paint the inner thighs going towards the perineal area. 89.What are the important considerations that the nurse must remember after the placenta is delivered? Select all that apply. (1 Point) A. Check if the placenta is complete including the membranes B. Check if the cord is long enough for the baby C. Check if the umbilical cord has 3 blood vessels D. Check if the cord has a meaty portion and a shiny portion 90.The normal umbilical cord is composed of: (1 Point) A. 2 arteries and 1 vein B. 2 veins and 1 artery C. 2 arteries and 2 veins D. 1 artery and 1 vein 91.The following are correct statements about false labor, except? (1 Point) A. The pain is irregular in intensity and frequency. B. The duration of contraction progressively lengthens over time. C. There is no bloody vaginal discharge. D. The cervix is still closed. 92.The passageway in labor and delivery of the fetus includes the following, except? (1 Point) A. Distensibility of the lower uterine segment B. Cervical dilatation and effacement C. Distensibility of vaginal canal and introitus D. Flexibility of the pelvis 93.At what stage of labor and delivery does a primigravida differ mainly from a multigravida? (1 Point) A. Stage 1 B. Stage 2 C. Stage 3 D. Stage 4 94.The following are signs that the placenta has detached, except? (1 Point) A. Lengthening of the cord B. Uterus becomes more globular C. Sudden gush of blood D. Mother feels like bearing down 95.When the shiny portion of the placenta comes out first is called which of the following mechanisms? (1 Point) A. Marmets B. Ritgens C. Duncan D. Schultze 96.When delivering the baby’s head the nurse supports the mother’s perineum to prevent a tear. This technique is called? (1 Point) A. Marmet’s technique B. Ritgen’s technique C. Duncan maneuver D. Schultze maneuver 97.The placenta should be delivered normally within how many minutes after the delivery of the baby? (1 Point) A. 5 minutes B. 30 minutes C. 45 minutes D. 60 minutes 98.As soon as the placenta is delivered, the nurse must do which of the following actions? (1 Point) A. Inspect the placenta for completeness including the membranes. B. Place the placenta in a receptacle for disposal. C. Label the placenta properly. D. Leave the placenta in the kidney basin for the nursing aide to dispose of properly. 99.The normal dilatation of the cervix during the first stage of labor in a nullipara is? (1 Point) A. 1.2 cm./hr B. 1.5 cm./hr. C. 1.8 cm./hr D. 2.0 cm./hr 100.When the fetal head is at the level of the ischial spine, it is said that the station of the head is: (1 Point) A. Station -1 B. Station “0” C. Station +1 D. Station +2 101.During an internal examination, the nurse palpated the posterior fontanel to be at the left side of the mother in the upper quadrant. The interpretation is that the position of the fetus is: (1 Point) A. LOA B. ROP C. LOP D. ROA 102. Mechanism of labor, also known as the cardinal movements, refers to the sequencing of events involved in posturing and positioning that allows the baby to find the easiest to come out of the birth canal. Arrange the following mechanisms of labor in order during the course of labor and fetal delivery. (1 Point) A. Descent, Extension, Internal Rotation, Flexion, External Rotation, Expulsion B. Descent, Flexion, External Rotation, Extension, Internal Rotation, Expulsion C. Descent, Flexion, Internal Rotation, Extension, External Rotation, Expulsion D. Descent, Flexion, Internal Rotation, External Rotation, Extension, Expulsion

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