Get Answer: Year Female Presents Question Guide

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Original Question

A 46-year-old female presents to her physician reporting a breast rash. She has itching and redness of her left breast that has been worsening for several weeks. She has no fever, chills, nausea or vomiting. Two weeks ago, the patient was treated for mastitis with dicloxacillin; however, her symptoms have worsened. Her last menstrual period was one week ago. She has never been pregnant. She drinks one glass of wine with dinner every night and smokes half a pack of cigarettes daily. Her BMI is 28.8 kg/m?. Her temperature is 99.3° F, pulse is 84 beats/min and blood pressure is 112/72 mmg. Physical examination shows erythema and induration of the left breast surrounding the areola with skin dimpling and inversion of the nipple (shown below). Urine pregnancy test is negative. Which of the following is the next best step in management? (A) Switch to oral cephalexin (B) Fine needle aspiration (C) Core needle biopsy (D) Surgical excisional biopsy (E) Mammogram

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