How to Answer Which Following Will Questions (Complete Guide)

This type of question evaluates analytical and critical thinking skills.

What This Question Is About

This question relates to which following will and requires a structured academic response.

How to Approach This Question

Use appropriate theories and support your answer with clear reasoning.

Key Explanation

This topic involves which following will. A strong answer should include explanation, application, and examples.

Original Question

1. Which of the following will be included on the plan of care for a client receiving mechanical ventilation? a. Turn off the ventilator alarms b. Provide mouth care once a shift c. Reposition the client every 4 hr d. Place the head of the client’s bed at 40 degrees when supine 2. When an IV pump alarms because of pressure, what action does the nurse take first? a. Check the IV site for swelling b. Flush the catheter with a thrombolytic enzyme c. Get a new IV pump d. Remover the IV catheter 3. Which of the following actions will the nurse anticipate for the client following a lumbar puncture? a. Client will maintain fetal position b. Client will remain flat for 1 hour c. Client will ambulate immediately post-procedure d. Client will recover with head of bed elevated 4. A client has suffered a deep laceration to the femoral artery. Which type of shock would the nurse anticipate? a. Cardiogenic b. Neurogenic c. Hypovolemic d. Septic 5. A thoracentesis is performed to remove fluid. After assisting the provider with the procedure, the nurse notices that the client is short of breath, producing small amounts of hemoptysis and is slightly cyanotic around the mouth. What is the priority nursing intervention? a. Provide oxygen b. Notify the provider c. Keep the client in semi-Fowler position d. Provide intravenous fluids 6. A nurse is assisting with a sterile procedure. Which of the following practices will help maintain a sterile field? a. Keeping hands in sight and above waist level b. Using clean gloves to handle sterile items c. Placing a moist dressing directly on the sterile field d. Allowing sterile instruments to touch the outer edge of the field 7. A client is admitted to the medical-surgical unit with a diagnosis of gastrointestinal bleeding. The nurse notes that the client’s hourly urine output is decreasing. What is the normal output of urine per hour? a. 100 mL/hr b. 70 ml/hr c. 50 ml/hr d. 30 ml/hr 8. Which type of fluid would the nurse expect the provider to order for a client in hypovolemic shock? a. Isotonic b. Hypertonic c. Hypotonic d. Oral hydration 9. Nursing care for a client who is admitted with frostbite of the foot includes which of the following? a. Applying a heating pad to the frostbitten area b. Giving the client hot fluids to drink c. Wrapping the foot in warmed blankets d. Immersing the foot in warm water 10. A nurse is caring for a client in rehab who is recovering from burgs to his face, ears, and eyelids. Which of the following situations would require immediate notification of the provider? a. Urinary output 30 mL/hr b. Difficulty swallowing c. Heart rate 122 beats/min d. Blood pressure of 92/60 11. A 15-year-old male arrives at the ambulatory dienic. He is conscious, coherent and ambulatory. His shirt and pants are covered with blood. He and his friends state that they were playing and he fell onto a sharp stick. The victim pulled the stick out of his abdomen because it was causing him pain. Which of the following comments cause the most concern? a. “He has diabetes.” b. There was a lot of blood; it soaked three t-shirts.” c. The stick was dirty and covered with mud.” d. “He pulled the stick out!” 12. As a part of community education on Dengue fever, what is most beneficial to teach to the population affected? a. Mosquito control b. Isolate victims c. Handwashing d. Use of PPE 13. A client has pneumonia and is encouraged to increase fluid intake. He had 240 mL at breakfast, 100 mL with pills, 260 mL midmorning, and 400 mL with lunch and 300 mL midafternoon. How much more fluid does he need to reach the goal of 3000 mL for the day? a. 1700 b. 1600 c. 1750 d. 1650 14. A 60-year-old client arrives at the triage area with a complaint of diaphoresis, dizziness, and left-sided chest pain. The LPN will expect the client to be prioritized into which category? a. Non-urgent b. Urgent c. Emergent d. High urgent 15. What is the priority action for the nurse when the IV site is red and edematous (swollen)? a. Apply cold compresses to the IV site b. Elevate the extremity on a pillow c. Flush the catheter d. Stop the infusion of IV fluids 16. A nurse is planning to administer amoxicillin 350 mg PO to their client. On hand is amoxicillin 250 mg/5 mL. How many mL will the nurse administer to the client? (Do not label answer. Round to the nearest whole number. Do not use a trailing zero.) _________________mL 17. A nurse is on the disaster preparedness team at the hospital. During the training, they learn the definition of a disaster. Which of the following situations meets the criteria for a disaster? a. A car crash with three victims b. A bus crash with five injured transported to the local hospital c. A chemical leak resulting in multiple fatalities and injuries d. A handheld canister of pepper spray is accidentally deployed 18. A nurse is caring for a client in a rehab center who is being treated for partial-thickness and full-thickness burns of his head, neck and chest. A client who sustains burns on their face, neck, and chest is most at risk for which of the following? a. Airway obstruction b. Infection c. Fluid and electrolyte imbalance d. Loss of motor function 19. A nurse is attending yearly training about triaging clients after a mass casualty event. Which of the following clients would receive priority care? a. A client with an open fracture of the humerus b. A client with a large head laceration c. A client who has severe respiratory distress d. A client who has a small circular partial thickness burn of their hand 20. During a little league game one of the parents says, “1 just got stung by a bee and I am extremely allergic to them. What is the priority action? a. Call 911 and encourage her to stay calm b. Examine for evidence of a stinger c. Elevate the arm and apply an ice pack d. Evaluate for hives 21. A nurse is caring for a client with a new order for digoxin 0.25 mg PO daily. On hand is digoxin 0.125 mg/tablet. How many tablets will be administered with each dose? (Do not label answer. Round to the nearest whole number. Do not use a trailing zero.) _________________mL 22. A client admitted to the emergency department with chest pain is diagnosed with myocardial infarction (MI). The provider explains that the client could have complications from the MI such as cardiogenic shock. Which of the following are signs and symptoms of cardiogenic shock? Select all that apply. a. significant drop in blood pressure b. Diaphoresis c. Rapid pulse d. Elevated temperature e. Flushed skin 23. A nurse is preparing to administer hydrocodone/acetaminophen 5 mg PO every 6 hr for pain. The amount available is hydrocodone/acetaminophen 7.5 mg/500 mg/15 mL elixir. How many mL should the nurse administer? (Do not label answer. Round the answer to the nearest whole number. Do not use a trailing zero.) 10 mL 24. At a disaster scene, a nurse notices that a person has been triaged with a black tag. What is the best action for the nurse at this time? a. Immediately obtain a oxygen tank and apply an oxygen mask portable b. Seek out emergency services personnel to transport the client to the hospital c. Try to locate family members so that they can be present when the client dies d. Stay with the person for as long as possible to give support and comfort 25. A nurse is assisting with the care of a client who was transferred from the hospital following a motor vehicle crash 2 weeks previously. In the early phase of these injuries, what is the priority for data collection? a. Respiratory status b. Neurological status c. Cardiovascular status d. Muscle function 26. The nurse enters the client’s room to administer medications and find him lying motionless on the floor. What is the priority action? a. Go to the nurses station to alert the RN b. Initiate cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR) c. Perform the chin lift or jaw thrust maneuver d. Call for help from the patient’s room 27. Which of the following is an early symptom of shock? a. Hypotension b. Bradypnea c. Cold and clammy skin d. Tachycardia 28. The client receiving mechanical ventilation has become more restless throughout the shift. Which is the nurse’s first action? a. Sedate the client b. Call the health care provider c. Evaluate the client for pain d. Evaluate the client’s oxygenation 29. Which of the following are indications for a thoracentesis? (Select all that apply.) a. Remove pleural fluid b. Instill medications c. Assess lung ventilation and perfusion d. Locate a pulmonary embolism e. Diagnostic procedures 30. Calculate the correct flow rate Ordered: 1000 mL D5RL over 8 hours. Administration set delivers 20 gtts/mL. How many drops per minute should be administered? Round to the nearest whole number. a. 41.6666 gtts/mL b. 41 gtts/mL c. 42 gtts/mL. d. 41.7 gtts/mL 31. A nurse is learning about disaster management and triage, which includes a discussion about using different colored tags to identify the timeframe in which the client should receive treatment. Which of the following color tags should the nurse include as identifying a client who requires treatment within 30 min to 2 hr? a. Red b. Green c. Yellow d. Black 32. To evaluate the effectiveness of Lasix and morphine for the treatment of pulmonary edema, the nurse would do which of the following? (Select all that apply) a. Monitor intake and output b. Monitor respiratory status c. Monitor for decreased pain d. Monitor strength of peripheral pulses e. Monitor bowel sounds 33. A client arrives at the emergency department with a bee sting.he has swollen tongue, labored breathing and flushed face. He can talk but sounds muffled. Which of the following orders would the nurse perform first? a. Administer epinephrine subcutaneously b. Initiate intravenous access c. Administer intravenous d. Administer intravenous cortisone 34. What is the priority action for the nurse to take if phlebitis (inflammation) at the IV site is suspected? a. Apply continuous heat b. Continue to monitor site c. Elevate the extremity d. Remove the catheter 35. The CDC has identified an outbreak of cholera in a small remote village. The nurse volunteers to treat victims and educate the village on preventative measures. What would the nurse focus on in teaching the people that live in the village? Select all that apply. a. Handwashing b. Boil water before drinking c. Prevent raw sewage from entering water source d. Proper wound care e. Cook food well before eating 36. An Epi-Pen is prescribed for a client following an anaphylactic reaction. The nurse is discharging the client and has reviewed how to use an Epi-Pen. Which of the following statements most accurately demonstrates an understanding of how to inject the medication? a. “I will have someone give the injection in my arm deep into the muscle.” b. “I will administer deeply into the muscle in my thigh.” c. “I will administer it into my stomach area.” d. “I will administer in the outer area of my thigh, hold firmly, and inject.” 37. Which of the following interventions should the nurse identify as the priority for a long-term care client who is receiving mechanical ventilation? a. Application of antiembolism stockings b. Begin continuous tube feeding through a nasogastric tube c. Suctioning the airway as needed d. Providing a communication board for the client 38. The nurse is assigned to assist in triage. Which of the following most accurately describes the purpose of triage? a. Prioritize based on need for treatment b. Ensure that all clients receive treatment eat a c. Ensure that medical equipment is available d. Identify the need for supplies and support 39. A client is in cardiogenic shock with significant hypotension. What position would increase the blood flow to the brain? a. Supine with legs elevated b. High Fowlers c. Side-lying d. Semi-Fowlers 40. The client is admitted for a diagnosis of inhalation anthrax. What is the health care provider most likely to order to treat this client? a. IV fluids and oxygen therapy b. Ciprofloxacin (Cipro) c. Gentamicin (Garamycin) d. Antitoxin type A or B 41. A provider requires assistance performing a thoracentesis at the bedside. Which of the following actions will the nurse take prior to the procedure? a. Verify consent has been signed b. Place client in side-lying position c. Identify client by asking their name d. Prepare a non-sterile field for use during procedure 42. Which nursing intervention helps prevent ventilator-associated pneumonia? Select all that apply. a. Elevate the head of bed 30 to 45 degrees b. Frequent removal of subglottic secretions c. Hand hygiene before and after contact with every client d. Provide oral care e. Turn the client daily 43. A nurse enters the room of a client whose mechanical ventilator low-pressure alarm is sounding. What is the priority action? a. Check the ventilator settings b. Check the client’s respiratory status c. Check the client’s vital signs d. Start cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR) 44. What of the following actions would help reduce the risk of infections in the older adult who is receiving IV therapy? a. Apply skin protectant before applying the dressing b. Avoid the use of alcohol pads when removing the tape c. Shave the skin before attempting the venipuncture d. Use paper tape to help prevent skin tears 45. Which of the following situations put someone at risk for hypovolemic shock? a. Well controlled bleeding b. Bites or stings c. Third degree burns d. Bacteria 46. Clients who are receiving mechanical ventilation are at risk for pneumonia. Which of the following actions will help decrease the risk of pneumonia? Select all that apply. a. Administering antibiotic prophylaxis b. Suction as needed to remove subglottic secretions c. Elevate the head of the bed at least 30 degrees whenever possible d. Handwashing before and after contact with the client e. Placing a nasogastric tube f. Placing the client in a negative airflow room. 47. A client received their first dose of oral antibiotic at 1230. At 1330 the nurse enters the room to re-evaluate the client and notices a fine red rash on the client’s arms Which of the following is the priority intervention by the nurse? a. A Initiate a peripheral IV b. Check the client’s respiratory rate c. Initiate oxygen d. Prepare for administration of epinephrine 48. A nurse is observing the care of a client in the emergency department. The client reports severe radiating chest pain and shortness of breath. The client is restless, slightly cyanotic, and reports being frightened. The provider prescribes oxygen by nasal cannula at 4 L/min stat, cardiac enzyme levels, IV fluids, and a 12-lead ECG. Which of the following actions will be taken first? a. Initiating the 12-lead ECG b. Blood draw for cardiac enzymes c. Application of oxygen at 4 L/min d. Inserting the peripheral IV 49. The nurse is caring for a postoperative client who had major abdominal surgery. Which assessment finding is consistent with hypovolemic shock? a. Pulse pressure of 40 mm Hg b. A rapid, weak, and thready pulse c. Warm, flushed skin d. Increased urinary output 50. During a disaster drill, the nurse becomes suspicious that the clients are victims of a biological event. What action should the nurse take next? a. Calmly apply PPE b. Alert hospital leadership to activate an internal disaster c. Alert the charge nurse to activate an internal disaster d. Remove all victims from the ER waiting area to a decontamination area 51. A local train wreck has released the chemical agent chlorine. Victims of exposure arrive at local hospitals. As a part of the internal disaster team, the nurse is assigned to decontaminate the victims. What measure would the nurse take first to decontaminate the skin? a. Remove contaminated clothing b. Wash skin with soap and water c. Flush skin with plain water for 2-3 minutes d. Use bleach to decontaminate skin 52. Which client needs to be placed immediately in isolation? a. A client diagnosed with botulism poisoning b. A probable case of inhalation anthrax c. Known exposure to high dose radiation rays d. Suspected smallpox, but probable chickenpox 53. A nurse is monitoring a client who is receiving continuous enteral feeding. Which of the following findings should the nurse identify as the priority? a. Temperature 38.2° C (100.8° F) b. Respiratory rate 12/min c. Hematocrit 45% d. Urine specific gravity 1.015 54. A nurse is assisting with the care of a client immediately following a lumbar puncture. Which of the following actions should the nurse take? a. Insert a urinary catheter b. Elevate the client’s head of bed c. Decrease fluid intake d. Monitor the puncture site for hematoma 55. Which position is best for the client undergoing a thoracentesis? a. Sitting up, leaning forward on an overbed table b. Side-lying affected side up, head slightly raised c. Side-lying, affected side down, head flat d. High Fowler’s position 56. Which of the following interventions is a priority for a client following a lumbar puncture? a. Provide the client a low-sodium diet b. Change the client’s dressing every 12 hr c. Place the client in high-Fowler’s position d. Encourage oral fluids 57. A nurse is assisting the RN in triage. There are four clients to be triaged. Which of the following clients would need to be seen first? a. A 45-year-old male with vomiting and abdominal pain b. A 35-year-old jogger who reports ankle pain c. A 25-year-old male with a minor forehead laceration d. An irritable infant with a fever, petechiae, and nuchal rigidity 58. A nurse is working in an ambulatory clinic. A client enters the clinic and is bleeding profusely from a deep laceration on his left lower forearm. After donning gloves, what is the priority action? a. Administer epinephrine subcutaneously b. Initiate intravenous access c. Administer intravenous antihistamines d. Administer intravenous cortisone 59. A provider writes an order for potassium chloride 30 mEq PO daily. On hand is potassium chloride 20 mEq/15mL. (How many mL will be administered with each dose? Do not label answer. Round the answer to the nearest tenth. Use a leading zero if it applies. Do not use a trailing zero.) _________________mL 60. The Plague was caused by bacteria found in rodents and fleas. The Plague is on the list of bioterrorist agents. As a part of the disaster preparedness team, the nurse is required to know the signs and symptoms of the Plague. What are the signs and symptoms of the Plague? a. Hemoptysis, high fever, headache, respiratory failure b. Nausea, vomiting, anorexia c. Fever, backache, pustular lesions d. Swollen lymph nodes, edema 61. A nurse is working with several clients. Which of the following clients requires the nurse’s immediate attention? a. A client who had a tonsillectomy and is swallowing frequently b. A client who had an appendectomy and refuses to ambulate c. A client who has an IV infusion and reports pain at the insertion site d. A client who reports pain of 6 on a 1 to 10 pain scale 62. In a disaster triage situation, which of the following is an example of the emergent (red tag) category? a. A client who has an open fracture b. A client who has several closed fractures with bruising c. A client who has a punctured femoral artery d. A client who exhibits manifestations of multiple organ failure 63. A client receiving gentamycin intravenously reports that she is itching and has a rash on her arms. What is the priority action in this situation? a. Report the client’s problem to the primary health care provider b. Document findings and actions in the electronic medical record c. Change the IV insertion site to a new location d. Stop the infusion of the drug immediately 64. A client who has taken their first dose of penicillin reports shortness of breath and a red rash on their chest and abdomen. Which of the following medications would be administered first? a. Albuterol b. Hydrocortisone sodium succinate c. Diphenhydramine d. Epinephrine 65. Older adult clients often have fragile skin which puts them at risk for skin tears. Which of the following interventions would increase the risk of skin tear? a. Using a lift sheet to reposition client b. Maintain adequate nutrition and hygiene c. Use non adherent dressings d. Remove tape and dressings quickly 66. Which of the following actions is the responsibility of the nurse during a disaster? a. A Reinforce discharge teaching to clients b. Focus on clients with life-threatening emergencies c. Delegate the AP to focus on clients’ ADLS d. Maintain appropriate stock in the unit 67. During anaphylactic shock, the body reacts by rapidly vasodilating blood vessels. The body’s response also includes an airway reaction to histamine. What is the expected airway response during anaphylaxis? a. Bronchoconstriction b. Bronchodilation c. Bronchophony d. Bronchoscopy 68. A nurse is collecting data on a client who has a major burn injury. The nurse should recognize which of the following findings as a Priority? a. The client has first degree burns on their hands b. The client reports moderate discomfort at burn sites c. The client has a cough productive of black colored sputum d. The client’s heart rate is 122 beats/minute 69. A nurse is working with the RN and is monitoring a client following a thoracentesis. Which of the following clinical manifestations has the highest priority? a. Serosanguineous drainage at the insertion site b. Mild discomfort at the insertion site c. Increased heart rate d. Decreased temperature 70. Which of the following is a high priority in the immediate treatment of chemical burns of the hands? a. In all cases, apply water to cool the burn b. In most cases, except for dry lime, flush with large amounts of water to remove chemical c. Cover the burn with dressing, but do not flush the chemical from the skin d. Use alcohol to clean the chemical of the skin 71. A nurse is preparing to exit an isolation room. Which of the following pieces of personal protective equipment (PPE) should the nurse remove last? a. Mask b. Gown c. Eyewear d. Gloves 72. Smallpox was eradicated in the US in 1971 due to the development of a vaccine. Smallpox is listed in the category of bioterrorist agents. How is smallpox transmitted as a biologic agent? a. Airborne b. Contact c. Indirectly in food sources d. Contaminated water 73. A client is in hypovolemic shock. The nurse knows that with any type of shock, there will be a decrease in circulating blood volume resulting in decreased tissue perfusion. The inadequate tissue perfusion causes what observable sign in the client evaluation? a. Delayed capillary refill b. Increased urine output c. Vasodilation d. Flushed skin 74. During a training session at work, the presenter talks about possible complications related to peripheral V therapy. After attending the session, the nurse understands that a red streak arising from the IV site and a vein that is firm to palpation would most likely mean which of the following? a. Phlebitis at IV site b. Infection at IV site c. Thrombosed area at IV site d. Infiltration at IV site 75. A client presents to the outpatient clinic with a two-day history of fever. fatigue, coughing, and difficulty breathing. She is short of breath and is unable to speak in complete sentences. What is the priority action? a. Obtain blood pressure b. Obtain oxygen saturation c. Review the physician orders and implement d. Weigh the client

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