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Remediation The parents of an infant newly diagnosed with an X-linked dominant inheritance disorder mare are asking questions to increase their understanding of the disorder and how it may affect future offspring. Which information is most important to explain to the parents to answer their questions? a,. It only affects male offspring b. It appears in every generation c, All children of the couple will be affected. d. Diseases caused by this disorder are not life-threatening 2. After teaching a group of women about the signs of pregnancy, the nurse understands that teaching was successful if the group makes which statement about positive signs? a. “They will be able to hear the fetal heart rate on auscultation,” b. “The woman will have amenorrhea” c. “There will be a positive Hegar sign” d. “The client will experience quickening.” 3. The nurse is assessing the client status and behavior as the client attends monthly visits to the obstetrician. At which time during pregnancy does the nurse anticipate the client changing the verbiage about the fetus, from referring to an object to referring to a human pronoun? a. In the second trimester after quickening occurs b. Following confirmation of pregnancy with a positive blood test c. When the fetus is engaged and Braxton Hicks contractions begin d. When the family is told and plans begin to incorporate the newborn into the home 4. A pregnant woman asks the nurse about using herbal remedies while she is pregnant. The nurse recommends that the woman talk with her health care provider about their use based on which understanding? a. They are not rated with regard to safety during pregnancy. b. They can create nutritional deficiencies in the mother and fetus c. They are known to cause teratogenic effects in the fetus. d. They have been proven to cause early labor 5. A nurse is teaching a class on genetic disorders for pregnant couples who have recently been told their unborn child has a genetic disorder. Which statement would be important for the nurse to include? a, “Genetic disorders occur at the moment an ovum and sperm fuse.” b. “Genetic disorders occur when you expose yourself to harmful chemicals.” c. “Genetic disorders occur because you were predestined for it.” d. “Genetic disorders occur during proliferation of cell growth. 6. A nurse is documenting the obstetric history for a pregnant woman who has previously given birth to two infants at term and had one abortion at 12 weeks’ gestation. How would the nurse document this information? a. Gravida 3, para2 b. Gravida 3, para 3 c. Gravida 4, para 2 d. Gravida 4, para 3 7. A nurse is reviewing the medical records of several pregnant women who have come to the center for care. Which woman would the nurse most likely identify as being at highest risk for nutritional deficiency during pregnancy? a. Woman who never worries about dieting b. Woman with a 1-year-old infant c. Woman with 5-year -old twins d. Woman who rarely eats fresh fruit 8. A pregnant client with deep vein thrombosis has been diagnosed as having systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE). The nurse would monitor the client closely for the development of which complication? a. Increased placental weight b. Postterm birth of infant c. Fetal macrosomia d. Fetal malnutrition 9. A woman’s obstetrician prescribes vitamin K supplements for a client who is on antiepileptic medications beginning at 36 weeks’ gestation. The mother asks the nurse why she is taking this medication. The nurse’s best response would be: a. Vitamin K helps in keeping the placental healthy. b. Antiepileptic therapy can lead to vitamin K-deficient hemorrhage of the newborn. c. Administration of vitamin K aids in lung maturity of the fetus. d. The antiepileptic medications can cause the mother’s platelets drop. 10. A mother is talking to the nurse and is concerned about managing her asthma while she is pregnant. Which response to the nurse’s teaching indicates that the woman needs further instruction? a, “I need to be aware of my triggers and avoid them as much as possible.” b. “It is fine for me to use my albuterol inhaler if I begin to feel tight.” c. “I need to begin taking allergy shots like my friend to prevent me from having an allergic reaction this spring.” d. “I will monitor my peak expiratory flow rate regularly to help me predict when an asthma attack is coming on.” 11. A client in the 20th week of pregnancy with a blood pressure of 148/92 mm Hg is diagnosed with mild to moderate hypertension. Which treatment does the nurse anticipates for the client when all testing is negative for kidney and thyroid disease? a. None b. Aspirin c. Nifedipine d. Methyldopa 12. A nurse is assisting a client in active labor whose diabetes has been poorly controlled. Which assessment of the neonate should be prioritized after its birth? a. Macrosomia b. Hyperglycemia low birthweight hyperbilirubinemia c. Low birthweight d. Hyperbilirubinemia 13. A nurse working in an OB clinic meets a female who is 4 to 6 weeks pregnant. Lab results reveal she is positive for syphilis, so she is treated with IM penicillin. Later in the pregnancy, she is retested, and her serum titer results continue to increase. How should the nurse interpret these results? a. The initial IM penicillin did not treat the syphilis. b. The female’s syphilis is immune to the usual penicillin treatment. c. The female has been reinfected with syphilis. d. The serum titer usually remains high for up to a year, so no further treatment is required. 14. The nurse is concerned that a client is not obtaining enough folic acid. Which test would the nurse anticipate being used to evaluate the fetus for potential neural tube defects? a. Maternal serum alpha-fetoprotein analysis b. Triple-marker screen c. Doppler flow study d. Amniocentesis 15. The nurse is caring for a multigravida client at 38 weeks’ gestation and is reviewing diagnostic studies that estimate 1 liter of amniotic fluid surrounding the fetus. The nonstress test is reactive with a heart rate of 142 beats/min and moderate variability. The client verbalizes lower back discomfort. Which interpretation of the fetal status will the nurse make? a. There is no concerning data. Fetal heart rate is normal and kidney function exists. b. There is limited amniotic fluid, but the fetal heart is not compromised c. The fetal heart is stressed, with an elevated heart rate and nonstress test reactivity d. The mother is experiencing back labor pains, causing a rupture of membranes. 16. A woman comes to the prenatal clinic and undergoes a pelvic exam. The doctor notes a softening of the uterine isthmus. The nurse recognizes that this finding is known as what sign? a, Hegar sign b. Chadwick sign c. Quickening d. Goodell sign 17. The nurse is completing an environment and occupational at the first prenatal visit. Which client statement indicates a need for clarification? a, “I live in a one-story home” b . “I have a dog and a cat at home.” c. “I drive 30 minutes to go to work.” d. “I interact with many people throughout the day.” 18. When describing the role of a doula to a group of pregnant women, the nurse would include which information? a. The doula is a professionally trained nurse hired to provide physical and emotional support. b. The doula can perform any necessary clinical procedures. c. The doula primarily focuses on providing continuous labor support. d. The doula is capable of handling high-risk births and emergencies 19. Human papillomavirus (HPV) an cause condylomata acuminata that can develop in clusters on the vulva, within the vagina, on the cervix, or around the anus. What is their risk? a. Neonatal auricular papillomas b. Block a vaginal birth c. Heavy bleeding during vaginal birth d. Neonatal hemorrhage 20. A physician has prescribed magnesium sulfate for a client with premature labor. Data collection reveals the client’s respiratory rate is 12 breaths /minute, and urine output is 30 ml/ hour. The magnesium sulfate serum levels are 7 mg/dl. When questioned, the client reports feeling warm and flushed. Based upon the nurse’s understanding of magnesium sulfate. What action is most appropriate? a. The client is demonstrating early signs of toxicity and the dosage should be reduced. b. The client is demonstrating an allergic reaction and the medication should be discontinued immediately. c. The client’s response is appropriate and within normal limits; therefore, no action is necessary d. The client is demonstrating potential complications and the physician should be notified

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