Year Woman With Assignment Help: How to Answer This Question

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Key Explanation

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Original Question

A 40-year-old woman with a history of breast cancer in remission presents with a 1-month history of vaginal irritation, dyspareunia, and dysuria. Her only medication is letrozole. A urinalysis is obtained, which reveals no acute abnormalities. A pelvic exam is performed in which the patient experiences a moderate amount of discomfort with the exam and begins having some light vaginal bleeding following the speculum exam. What would be the safest form of therapy for this patient? A. Vaginal/topical hormone replacement therapy B. Vaginal/topical moisturizers and lubricants C. Vaginal estradiol ring D. Oral hormone replacement therapy

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