Year Primigravida Presents Explained for Students (Easy Guide)

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This question relates to year primigravida presents and requires a structured academic response.

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Original Question

A 22-year-old primigravida presents for a scheduled prenatal visit at 12 weeks of gestation. The patient states she feels healthy and has not smoked for the past 3 months. However, she reports sexual intercourse with multiple partners before becoming pregnant. A rapid plasma reagin screen (RPR) is positive for syphilis. Free treponemal antigen (FTA) is positive. Which of the following is the most appropriate treatment step for this patient? A. Start oral penicillin for 3 months. B. Administer single dose intramuscular benzathine penicillin G C. Administer ceftriaxone. D. Perform a second confirmatory test for syphilis before starting antibiotic therapy.

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